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There is no such thing as ‘Palestine’ nor ‘Palestinian people’
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[quote:Anonymous Coward 664728:MV8yMDYwMTk2XzM0NjU5MDIzXzlBODI2M0NC] [quote:Carshy McCarsh:MV8yMDYwMTk2XzUyMUVCMDgw] A lot of people on GLP are very confused as to the "Palestinian" question. Here, read up - There is no such thing as ‘Palestine’ nor ‘Palestinian people’ Before the state was declared in 1948 the word ‘Palestinian’ was used by the British as the name for Jews who lived in the British controlled land. But the term was hi-jacked, just as the terrorists hi-jacked planes and buses in order to blow them up, in order to further their jihad against the Jewish state. There has never been a country called ‘Palestine’ and there is no such thing as a ‘Palestinian people’. The arabs who are occupying Jewish land came to Israel in order to prevent the establishment of the Jewish state. The British Mandate gave approximately 70% of the British land to the arabs who established the states Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan. The arabs who are occupying Israel belong in Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan and should be motivated, either monetarily or physically, to move away from the Jewish state. http://mytorah.wordpress.com/2011/04/14/there-is-no-such-thing-as-palestine-nor-palestinian-people/ http://www.wnd.com/2002/07/14501/ http://www.factsandlogic.org/ad_91.html [/quote] Before Israel became a nation, the land was part of the Ottoman Empire. After the Ottoman Empire fell, the British had a mandate on the land. Some Jews and Arabs lived in the land under the British. And Jews were constantly buying land since at least the mid-1800s. In 1917, the Jews asked the British for governing power over the land and it was granted. The Ottoman Empire became Lebanon, Syria, Israel, Jordan, etc. The Jews only got 1/5 of 1% of the land in Israel. But the Arabs were granted the other 99.8% of the land. Why isn't 99.8% of the land enough? Why must the Arabs also have that other .2% as well?? [/quote]
Original Message
A lot of people on GLP are very confused as to the "Palestinian" question. Here, read up -
There is no such thing as ‘Palestine’ nor ‘Palestinian people’
Before the state was declared in 1948 the word ‘Palestinian’ was used by the British as the name for Jews who lived in the British controlled land. But the term was hi-jacked, just as the terrorists hi-jacked planes and buses in order to blow them up, in order to further their jihad against the Jewish state.
There has never been a country called ‘Palestine’ and there is no such thing as a ‘Palestinian people’. The arabs who are occupying Jewish land came to Israel in order to prevent the establishment of the Jewish state. The British Mandate gave approximately 70% of the British land to the arabs who established the states Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan. The arabs who are occupying Israel belong in Lebanon, Syria, and Jordan and should be motivated, either monetarily or physically, to move away from the Jewish state.
[
link to mytorah.wordpress.com
]
[
link to www.wnd.com
]
[
link to www.factsandlogic.org
]
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