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Serious Math Question. Need a serious math nerd to help explain this to me. (Involves Calc)
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[quote:Chuck:MV8yMTk0MDgzXzM3MTMwODE4XzY1MUY3NTU0] Because ln n is basically equivalent to e^x=n. So, if n is approaching 0, x is approaching neg. infinity (damn ascii). Any more questions? [/quote]
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All right, so I'm working through my calculus homework, and I encounter a problem such as lim n -> infinity of ln 1/n... The limit is 0. So, we get ln 0. Which is undefined. However my book tells me that the limit is negative infinity. How is that possible? Because if we convert the ln 0 back into an exponent we get. e^x = 0. And we all know that there is no solution for this problem. I'm curious how this works.
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