TRac 514:

"Where in John´s writing does he use Arabic numerals 666? You´re reading the King James translation, are you not?"

Yes, I use that translation. John does not use explicitly the Arabic numerals. He says:" Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is six hundred three score and six" (Rev. 13:18). This is the number 666. The fact that John does not write the number in its Arabic form is irrelvant. The original Greek text expresses this number as its translated text. It does NOT express it as three characters. So your theory is plain wrong. Besides, the ´mark´ of the Beast is not the same thing as his number. You confuse the two, and John does not say what the mark looks like. If he had meant the gematraic number of the name of the Beast, he would surely have said so. Your interpretation is a non-starter - just one of many that people have offered. None of them convince me. If this prophecy is true, the symbol has yet to appear, as far as I am concerned.