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Message Subject Paranormal Capabilities and Realities . . . Do they exist?  . . . What do you think?
Poster Handle Sandi_T
Post Content
Interesting thesis. . . .is this also true of French, German, Spanish, etc. . . ?


By the Way. . . .Law is another area full of Latin words used to confuse all but the experts. . . .scheming
 Quoting: George B


French and Spanish, as far as I can tell, are somewhat so. However, they were bastardized from Latin sooner, and by more directly 'governmental' forces.

English was more strongly and directly influenced by the priesthood, while Spanish and French were influenced more by 'priestly governors' if that makes sense. The Roman Empire brought in the French/Spanish languages, not so much the priesthood. These languages predate English.

Gaelic was what was replaced by English, though this is why English bears much more of other Euro languages. Because much of Continental Europe already had a good deal of Greek, which was the 'universal' language of the Roman Empire. The language of commerce, etc.

So the antecedent of these languages is Greek based with bastardized Latin to keep them within the realm of the priests and governors' understandings.

Because it was one of the earliest bastardized languages, French was for a time the dominant language, the universal language (much the way English is now, and Mandarin likely will be in the near future).

It was spread by indirect remaining Roman influence, unlike English which was spread almost exclusively by priests. However, by that time, Catholicism had such a strong hold that 'governor' and 'priest' was nearly inseparable.

They forced their language and their calendar onto the world with powerful economic sanctions (and murder). English did not supplant French and Spanish entirely because they share the latin ancestry, which means none of them are close enough to latin to make latin understandable to the common person... yet close enough that there is little learning required for the 'elite' usurpers to learn it fluently.
 
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