## Y + 2 = Y ... Anyone have the answer? | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 1393542 Australia 07/06/2012 12:36 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

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Dr.DoomLittleUser ID: 6231580 United States 07/06/2012 12:40 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | I'm not satifisfied with that answer. It is subjective; and an example of dictatory mathamatics. Last Edited by Intergalactic Diplomat on 07/06/2012 12:42 AM |

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Borian (OP)User ID: 1139038 United States 07/06/2012 12:43 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

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Anonymous Coward User ID: 2145552 Canada 07/06/2012 12:44 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | I may have fell for a very old troll, but this one is halfway driving me nuts. Quoting: Google is no help. Just sarcastic nerd replies. Borian Y + 2 = Y Y - Y = - 2 0 = - 2 Impossible. Your problem's formula is WRONG. X + 2 = X X - X = - 2 0 = - 2 Impossible, too, with X I tried it with A through Z and it is still impossible. ;-) |

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Borian (OP)User ID: 1139038 United States 07/06/2012 12:45 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | I may have fell for a very old troll, but this one is halfway driving me nuts. Quoting: Google is no help. Just sarcastic nerd replies. Borian Y + 2 = Y Y - Y = - 2 0 = - 2 Impossible. Your problem's formula is WRONG. X + 2 = X X - X = - 2 0 = - 2 Impossible, too, with X I tried it with A through Z and it is still impossible. ;-) Anonymous Coward 2145552 Ha. I got good results from Ab and tG. |

whydidubanme User ID: 18671699 United States 07/06/2012 12:45 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | So this I know something about, and most the previous responses are on the right track. The problem with 2+y=y is the = sign. Its simply not an equality. Proof: Dividing y (2+y)/y = y/y 2/y +1 =1 2/y = 0 .... Dividing by (y+2) (2+y)/(2+y) = y/(2+y) 1= y/2 +1 0 = y/2 therefore... 2/y = y/2 multiply by y.... 2/y= y/2 if y = infinity, then 0 = infinity. 0 does not equal infinity... That why it became to introduct limits. The limit of 2/(y+2) as y ---> infinity does = zero. Sorry I dont feel like figuring out how to enter the sigma sign indicating limit with the correct nomenclature. However, it is a good question as it forms a basis for calculus which utilizes infinity and 0 in order to analyze the change of variables impacting the output of the formula function. Go wiki calculus and you'll see, its all about the core of the OPs inquiry. |

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Dr.DoomLittleUser ID: 6231580 United States 07/06/2012 12:51 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | So this I know something about, and most the previous responses are on the right track. The problem with 2+y=y is the = sign. Its simply not an equality. Quoting: Proof: Dividing y (2+y)/y = y/y 2/y +1 =1 2/y = 0 .... Dividing by (y+2) (2+y)/(2+y) = y/(2+y) 1= y/2 +1 0 = y/2 therefore... 2/y = y/2 multiply by y.... 2/y= y/2 if y = infinity, then 0 = infinity. 0 does not equal infinity... That why it became to introduct limits. The limit of 2/(y+2) as y ---> infinity does = zero. Sorry I dont feel like figuring out how to enter the sigma sign indicating limit with the correct nomenclature. However, it is a good question as it forms a basis for calculus which utilizes infinity and 0 in order to analyze the change of variables impacting the output of the formula function. Go wiki calculus and you'll see, its all about the core of the OPs inquiry. whydidubanme 18671699 i like that..but It does show however that our sience will always be proved WRONG over time, as well as our logic. So the original formula, appearing at the surface to be invalid, or a lie: stating y = y+2, is actually a misprint of another equation that is an inequality? sounds a bit stretchy. Last Edited by Intergalactic Diplomat on 07/06/2012 12:55 AM |

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Dr.DoomLittleUser ID: 6231580 United States 07/06/2012 12:56 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | Objection. Speculative, Subjective, not a foundation in fact but opinion. I am concluding the statement of Y=Y+2 is a lie. Or am i missing some secret knowledge where constants are defined in motion, or in metamorphosis, not as fixed matter; this seems highly subjective. It suggests an entry into another dimension or an alternating constant; a constant that is defined by its change a tangent? Last Edited by Intergalactic Diplomat on 07/06/2012 01:04 AM |

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Anonymous Coward User ID: 18671699 United States 07/06/2012 01:05 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | Mispring? I dont see what you mean by that... Science is not being proved wrong. No matter what happens with quantum physics, 1 will always equal 1. You can multiply 1 x Y and it will always equal 1 x Z but only if y = Z. It can and does get incredibly complex but at the end of the day, solving such an equation or executing a mathematical function can always be reduced to 1 = 1. 0 = 0 etc. when reduced to its simplist form. Look up calculus, its not nearly as daunting to understand as you might think. Solving story problems using calculus on the other hand is much more difficult, its much easier to solve an equation than do determine what equation needs to be solved. Responding to: i like that..but It does show however that our sience will always be proved WRONG over time, as well as our logic. So the original formula, appearing at the surface to be invalid, or a lie: stating y = y+2, is actually a misprint of another equation that is an inequality? sounds a bit stretchy. |

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