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## Y + 2 = Y ... Anyone have the answer? | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 19217658 United States 07/06/2012 03:15 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 1885697 United States 07/06/2012 03:54 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | So this I know something about, and most the previous responses are on the right track. The problem with 2+y=y is the = sign. Its simply not an equality. Quoting: Proof: Dividing y (2+y)/y = y/y 2/y +1 =1 2/y = 0 .... Dividing by (y+2) (2+y)/(2+y) = y/(2+y) 1= y/2 +1 0 = y/2 therefore... 2/y = y/2 multiply by y.... 2/y= y/2 if y = infinity, then 0 = infinity. 0 does not equal infinity... That why it became to introduct limits. The limit of 2/(y+2) as y ---> infinity does = zero. Sorry I dont feel like figuring out how to enter the sigma sign indicating limit with the correct nomenclature. However, it is a good question as it forms a basis for calculus which utilizes infinity and 0 in order to analyze the change of variables impacting the output of the formula function. Go wiki calculus and you'll see, its all about the core of the OPs inquiry. whydidubanme 18671699 Ok why did I just think the same exact thing? |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 18317847 American Samoa 07/06/2012 04:08 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 11273222 United States 07/06/2012 04:15 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 19095843 United States 07/06/2012 05:17 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | subtract y from each side of the equation and you get Quoting: "2 does not equal 0" so it is invalid Anonymous Coward 19203755 Yes it is simply an invalid equation, pulled from someones ass. like saying 4=7. Its bullshit. Dr.DoomLittle You are correct to say the equation is bullshit however in mathematics we don't say that. What we say is Y+2=Y as long as 2=0, by subtracting Y from both sides, which is never, and so therefore the original equation is never true. Certainly there will be some yards who say hey what about infinity, infinity plus two equals infinity, but infinity is not a real number and therefore you are not allowed to use it as an answer. |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 1034800 United States 07/06/2012 05:27 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 18562233 United States 07/06/2012 05:31 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

The ScientistUser ID: 1201183 United Kingdom 07/06/2012 05:37 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

The ScientistUser ID: 1201183 United Kingdom 07/06/2012 05:40 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Brian MoserUser ID: 5430870 United States 07/06/2012 05:45 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward 07/06/2012 06:12 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | Y increases by two so cannot equal Y Quoting: Y + 2 != Y It's addition so Y has to change by 2 thus is no longer Y Anonymous Coward 1506508 This is the correct answer. The Scientist You are incorrect. There are cases where Y = Y + 2. One could take the derivative of both sides, with respect to Y, and the result would be true. |

T-ManUser ID: 1285189 Netherlands 07/06/2012 06:20 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | I've invented a new numeral, W, and W works the same way 2 x(times) 1 = 2. Only you replace the x(times) with a +. Quoting: So now, let Y = W W + 2 = W therefore, Y + 2 = Y or we can make the 2 into a 2/2 and that equals one. see arent dictatorships fun? done and done. accept and you'll recieve the appropriate social reinforcement, deny and you will be arrested and punished accordingly. Dr.DoomLittle makes no sense what so ever. 2 = 2/2 ? wtf man |

The ScientistUser ID: 1201183 United Kingdom 07/06/2012 06:24 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | Y increases by two so cannot equal Y Quoting: Y + 2 != Y It's addition so Y has to change by 2 thus is no longer Y Anonymous Coward 1506508 This is the correct answer. The Scientist You are incorrect. There are cases where Y = Y + 2. One could take the derivative of both sides, with respect to Y, and the result would be true. Wonkish No..you are incorrect, Y+2 can never be Y regardless of how you present it Y + something is always more than Y even when Y is infinity. If you can prove otherwise you will probably get a nobel prize..Good luck :-) Last Edited by The Scientist on 07/06/2012 06:24 AM |

Anonymous Coward 07/06/2012 06:26 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | Y increases by two so cannot equal Y Quoting: Y + 2 != Y It's addition so Y has to change by 2 thus is no longer Y Anonymous Coward 1506508 This is the correct answer. The Scientist You are incorrect. There are cases where Y = Y + 2. One could take the derivative of both sides, with respect to Y, and the result would be true. Wonkish No..you are incorrect, Y+2 can never be Y regardless of how you present it Y + something is always more than Y even when Y is infinity. If you can prove otherwise you will probably get a nobel prize..Good luck :-) The Scientist Are you not familiar with the concept of vacuous truth in mathematics? |

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Anonymous Coward User ID: 7057750 United States 07/06/2012 06:27 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 7057750 United States 07/06/2012 06:29 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

T-ManUser ID: 1285189 Netherlands 07/06/2012 06:30 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

The ScientistUser ID: 1201183 United Kingdom 07/06/2012 06:31 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | You are incorrect. There are cases where Y = Y + 2. One could take the derivative of both sides, with respect to Y, and the result would be true. Wonkish No..you are incorrect, Y+2 can never be Y regardless of how you present it Y + something is always more than Y even when Y is infinity. If you can prove otherwise you will probably get a nobel prize..Good luck :-) The Scientist Are you not familiar with the concept of vacuous truth in mathematics? Wonkish Look , if Y was an empty set or zero, and then you add 2 it becomes 2 and no longer empty so Y which equals the empty set would equal zero not two. Y cannot be empty after adding 2 so your proposition fails |

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realpulsarUser ID: 17921670 Netherlands 07/06/2012 06:38 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

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realpulsarUser ID: 17921670 Netherlands 07/06/2012 06:46 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 7057750 United States 07/06/2012 06:48 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward User ID: 19167039 Australia 07/06/2012 06:57 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | |

Anonymous Coward 07/06/2012 07:28 AM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ...You are incorrect. There are cases where Y = Y + 2. One could take the derivative of both sides, with respect to Y, and the result would be true. Wonkish No..you are incorrect, Y+2 can never be Y regardless of how you present it Y + something is always more than Y even when Y is infinity. If you can prove otherwise you will probably get a nobel prize..Good luck :-) The Scientist Are you not familiar with the concept of vacuous truth in mathematics? Wonkish Look , if Y was an empty set or zero, and then you add 2 it becomes 2 and no longer empty so Y which equals the empty set would equal zero not two. Y cannot be empty after adding 2 so your proposition fails The Scientist Mathematical logic does not seem to be your strongest point. Consider a simple conditional statement: If 0 = 1 then 1 =2. If you look at the truth values of this conditional then you must conclude that the statement is true. The statement is vacuously true, but nonetheless true---there is no discrimination between a true statement (T->T, or F->F) and a vacuously true statement (F->T) in mathematics. Now onto the OP's problem. If y < y + 2 and y + 2 < y then y = y + 2. Let p = y < y + 2, q = y + 2 < y, and r = y=y+2 Now we can look at the dichotomous outcomes and determine the falsity of the statement: (p and q) => r (T and F) => F F => F T Whenever the antecedent is false the conditional is automatically true. If you do not believe this, then by all means go ahead and construct a truth table and see it for yourself. Like I said, you must not understand the concept of vacuous truths in mathematics. It's a pity, I would have expected someone with the username "Scientist" to at least have a basic understanding of mathematical logic. |

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