|
REPORT ABUSIVE REPLY
|
|
Message Subject
|
Why does Jesus refer to Himself as the "son of man" and not the "son of God"?
|
|
Poster Handle
|
Anonymous Coward |
|
Post Content
|
...
No He is one, not three.
Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD. Deuteronomy 6:4
And I know Yeshua was there from the beginning but I believe He was separate from God. It makes no sense for God to be talking to himself through the Bible. This is the only logical explanation.
Here David is talking to Yeshua and makes the distinction.
<> The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. Psalm 110:1
Quoting: Anonymous Coward 8318906 well, humans are triune in nature and we talk about our other parts as separate as well as one simultaneously. for example, we have a physical body, a soul (mind/will/emotions) and a spirit. all separate parts of one person. That's really reaching Salt. When the Bible speaks of a soul, it just means a living being. Not all of us have a Spirit inside of us, only those who were born-again and have the Holy Spirit residing in them. well, that is totally incorrect. when the bible speaks of the soul, it speaks of our own will and emotions. our mind.
the spirit is separate from the soul. as the flesh is separate from the spirit and the soul. all can work together and against the other.No it is not. Can you prove that with with the Bible? And the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. Genesis 2:7
|
|
|
Please verify you're human:
|
|
|
Reason for reporting:
|
