Is Jesus GOD....i'm so confused

“And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.”

A man says it and it is correct BUT JESUS says the opposite and it is wrong.

John 1:18 NO MAN HAS SEEN GOD AT ANY TIME, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

AND

John 5:37 And the Father himself, which hath sent me, hath borne witness of me. YE HAVE NEITHER HEARD HIS VOICE AT ANY TIME, NOR SEEN HIS SHAPE.

AND

John 6:46 NOT THAT ANY MAN HATH SEEN THE FATHER, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father.

Maybe Jesus was just being appreciative of what Thomas said and corrected him later and it wasn't written down.

Jesus denies it to often and too clearly to take Thomas' view as fact.

You do follow Jesus don't you? OR Do you follow Thomas?

John 20:24-29

King James Version (KJV)


"But Thomas, one of the twelve, called Didymus, was not with them when Jesus came."

"The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto them, Except I shall see in his hands the print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust my hand into his side, I will not believe."

"And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace be unto you."

"Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing."

"And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God."

"Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed."

When Thomas say's my God he uses the Greek word the'os which means magistrate or judge

jesus is not god but made in his image, he shared with jesus allmost everything except 1 thing. that he had to die for our sins. watch these video to help you understand brother.

[link to www.youtube.com]

BUT what is written in John 20 after the little piece you quoted and why did you leave it out?

Why would the writer go back to calling Jesus the Son of GOD in verse 31 if Jesus had just confirmed he was GOD?

Something is wrong!

John 20: 30-31 And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:

But these are written, that ye might believe that JESUS IS THE CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD; and that believing ye might have life through his name

Could the explanation be that Thomas' statement was an exclamation in shock? Afterall he had just seen Jesus after his crucifixion and it was 8 days after the other disciples had seen Jesus.

Also back in those times important Romans were called Lord and God. It may just have been an expression of the times.

But here is the problem... No matter what side you take on this subject there is confusion.

SO I figure, if JESUS said it, it has to be more likely correct than if a mere human said it!

The Christian Church is modelled more on Paul than on Jesus... And Paul was a Pharisee.

PLUS Jesus said

Mark 7:7-9 Their worship is a farce, for they teach man-made ideas as commands from God.

For you ignore God’s law and substitute your own tradition.”

Then he said, “You skilfully sidestep God’s law in order to hold on to your own tradition.

Whose teachings will you choose?

According to traditional Judaism the God can't be a man; this is written in the Torah by the way. Can't we just accept that Jesus is the Messiah ben David? Could it be that the Vatican corrupted the New Testament by portraying Jesus as God, which would enable them to say that Maria is God's mother? I don't recall that Jesus ever said that He's God.

This could very well be true Anonymous Coward 27007879 as the word Theos does have that meaning as well.

That is the problem with all the tools that people use to decypher Greek and Hebrew etc.

Strong's concordance for instance. Whilst it is a very useful tool we get into lots of problems as they list so many meanings and they have based many on the Bible.

Take for instance in the Old Testament "Thou shalt not kill". Strong's concordance lists both kill and murder as an option for the Hebrew transliterated word ratsach.

Now this is very problematic as there is a massive difference between killing and murder. They are hardly interchangeable.

In war you may need to kill, or in self defense you may accidentally kill someone. So if we use kill as the definition does that mean that a Christian shouldn't go to war? Moses did both so he didn't follow his GOD's rules.

However by simply substituting the word kill to be murder then suddenly killing in war is not murder so it is OK.

Very convenient!

So when you look at the different Bible versions - they choose one or the other for who knows what motive.

The Greek transliteration using textus receptus is phoneuō and the Hebrew using Strong's is ratsach.

So in

Exodus 20:13 Thou shalt not kill. [link to bible.cc] they use Strong's H7523 [link to www.blueletterbible.org]

And it is also in Deuteronomy 5:17 Thou shalt not kill.

Of course then when the word kill is used in the New Testament some use murder and some use kill based on the Greek word phoneuō.

Matthew 5:21 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill ; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:

[link to bible.cc]

Textus receptus for phoneuō is [link to www.blueletterbible.org]

and Strong's is G5407 [link to www.blueletterbible.org]

So which version of the Bible is correct?

Most Christians would argue the King James Version is the version we should all use but that puts them deep into the "Thou shalt not kill" dilemma as kill is what is used in there.

If they use Moses as an example they don't have a worry - As Moses did both I guess they can do both...

Getting back to the excellent point you raised "theos" has many meanings and naturally because Christians are involved the definition "magistrates and judges" is way down the bottom.

[link to www.blueletterbible.org]

The plot thickens...

roflmao,its a book of metaphors about the spirit and the flesh of each of us..its our story from our 2 part Adam and eve spirit(male and female) in paradise/the womb/in baby flesh ,kicked out of paradise/we incarnate(that's born for you soultards) into the world... then go through the old testament/our childhood/first temple...to the new testament/our adulthood/second temple until we overcome the concepts and remember we are spirit within and our 3rd temple/body is then built that we are housing our spirit in...the 'biblical" characters never existed in the flesh...no human remains of any kings,queen,priests,prophets,armies,or Caesars etc have ever been found...wonder why?