Christians, did jesus use the KJV?

What language was the DSS writen in?

As I recall only the jews and the RC church had acsess to the DSS.

Then why didn't he write a single word of the NT?

He was the word.

Do you have evidence, that he pointed to any?

It seems that the techniques employed in standardizing the text were already present at the time of Jesus. With great rigour (the scribes of that time didn't fail at this).

The scribes didn't tolerate errors, and my unsderstanding is that one only error would cause all the page to be not just discared, but to be burnt so it was guarranted not to be mixed into other books or being read accidentally by other people.

Since KJV (1611) follows Masoretic, and Masoretic is closest to what they had at the time (probably identical, given the rigour), then KJV (1611) is the closest to what Jesus was reading/quoting at His time.

But e-Sword.net doesn't have all the texts in existence, it does not even have any of the Aramaic Text lines at all.

And it does not yet have any of the Dead Sea Scrolls Hebrew texts either. And there are many Greek texts that are not to be found on e-Sword yet. e-Sword also gets liked to the inexhaustive Hebrew to Englsih and Greek to English lexicons of Strong's.

e-Sword is a good start, but only a good start. sorta like the 1st week of 5th Grade.

The Old Testament, aka, the Tanach even of the older manuscripts and codice of Hebrew never had any vowel markings. It is the Oral Law(or Traditions of the Pharisees) that decided between 137 A.D. and into the 1100 A.D., to decide what vowels of the Hebrew 'should be' as to be inserted. The Tradition of pronouncitation was considered to be The Authority. Go figure.

At least the LXX has vowels in it.

Was it originally KJV.. no way in hell, or wait, yes, Only in Hell was the KJV the 'original Bible'. Same could be said of the NIV for that matter.

Did Abraham write a Book? If so, in what Language? He was of Ur of the Chaldeans according to the later 'Bible'.. what language writing system did Abraham use?

Abraham is reckoned to have lived somewhere around 2,300 B.C. to 2,100 B.C.

Do we have any of Jacob-Isreal's 'book'? If he had written it down for his prosperity? What writing system would Jacob-Israel have used? We don't know.

What we have or at least many thing they have is a line of textual descend apparently down from the time of Ezra and Neimiah's day. What writing system did they use or discover in the ruins of Solomon's Temples? WE don't know.

Lots Not Known -- Lot's no longer in existence in its original forms.

In 300 more years will the original parchament of the U.S COnstituion even still be in physical existence? Or will only copies of copies of copies of it then still exist?

Big questions...

Its all By Faith.

"You cannot change the words and meaning of the original languages so that is the constant."

That claim is fraudulent.

Take the Torah. The Hebrew of the Torah, alleged by many to have been written down allegedly in Moses' own hand.

Moses is thought to have lives somewhere between 1,900 B.C. and 1,300 B.C. depending on what chronologies one takes as their favorite one.

Ezra and Nehemiah writing or copying in somewhere around 500 B.C. (very roughly speaking)... would have been speaking a Hebrew language that was around 800 years newer or more recently than Moses...

Just go back to the spoken English (where are the MP3 recording of people actualy speaking in English in 1,200 A.D. btw) the English speaker of today would not have the sligthest idea what that 1,200 A.D. English speaker was saying. Attempt to read Old English and see how far you get unless you have deeply studied it... for instance.

The meanings of words change over generations, do they now? Even to the place where "True" is "Lie".. in standard Orwellians fashion.

Who writes the Lexicons of translation tools? Ah.. but there is the rub.

He that Controls the Lexicons is the True Magi.

Even Luther understood that. As did all the Popes of antiquity.

Even Jerome understood that -- in his 405 A.D. Vulgate, understood that.

The KJV is nothing more than a Politically Correct version of an English Translation. Just as in its day the Bishop's Bible or the Geneava Bible translations were also seen as the 'politicaly correct' translation version of the Bible in those culutres.

We don't have any of the original hand written texts of any of this all in existence today. The closest we can come seems to be those texts found in the Dead Sea Scroll themselves in their thousands of fragments at that.

have you ever read "The Gods of the Copybook Headings" by Kipling.

speaks to this same matter, language being changed and manipulated...

[link to www.kipling.org.uk]

He was always useing scripture so the scripture he studied and used had to be written down as a reference.

Greek was the high language of jesus' day. Masorite was an invened language of best guesses to reconstruct a dead language. Arabic was a common/low language. The real israelites probably spoke greek because it was close to the ancient hebrew language of moses who spoke phonecian.