Protoevangelium of James, is an apocryphal Gospel probably written about AD 145, which expands backward in time the infancy stories contained the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, and presents a narrative concerning the birth and upbringing of Mary herself. It is the oldest source to assert the virginity of Mary not only prior to but during (and after) the birth of Jesus.

[link to en.wikipedia.org]

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Here is the full text:

[link to www.earlychristianwritings.com]

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- If this manuscript is the oldest source which assert the virginity of Mary, then why it's classified as apocryphal by the church?

1) Mary's father was a rich man.

"IN THE RECORDS OF THE TWELVE TRIBES OF ISRAEL was Joachim, a man rich exceedingly; and he brought his offerings double, saying: There shall be of my superabundance to all the people, and there shall be the offering for my forgiveness to the Lord for a propitiation for me."

2) Mary was sent with three years old to study in the Temple of Jerusalem

"And the child was three years old, and Joachim said: Invite the daughters of the Hebrews that are undefiled, and let them take each a lamp, and let them stand with the lamps burning, that the child may not turn back, and her heart be captivated from the temple of the Lord."

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The symbolism of the Virgin was necessary to solidify the catholicism in those early years. How can Jesus could be the son of God if he is not born by a Virgin?

Early christians adapted the symbolism of the Virgin from ancient beliefs (Horus, Mithra, etc) and reshaped the story of the birth of Jesus in a way more acceptable to the society of the time. But they hided the real meaning through symbolism.

Her father invested in her studies since an early age. Mary received all the support necessary to spiritually evolve and be able to conceive Jesus through sexual relations during some kind of ritual.