What, pray tell, was the word that has been transliterated (or allegedly mistranslated) as "adultery" in the original language. That's the only meaning that counts. You have failed to show a direct transliteration from the original text which supports your assertion -- as usual.

To say that what the "common" word should have meant based upon contemporary language is a pedestrian error that even first year linguistics students would know to avoid.

The most interesting thing is how the fools that frequent this site gobble up whatever slop you spill.

Allow me to offer you assistance.

Exodus 20:14 (King James Version)

14Thou shalt not commit adultery.

na'aph

The only meaning of the word na'aph that has any significance within the context of this discourse is, obviously, that which was assigned to it by the speakers/writers of the original language.

Here is what every source that I can find regarding the language of ancient Hebrew states in terms of the definition of the word in question;

1) to commit adultery

a) (Qal)

1) to commit adultery

a) usually of man

1) always with wife of another

b) adultery (of women) (participle)

2) idolatrous worship (fig.)

b) (Piel)

1) to commit adultery

a) of man

b) adultery (of women) (participle)

2) idolatrous worship (fig.)

I looked at numerous sources and could find absolutely nothing which was in opposition to this widely accepted meaning. There are even sites wherein one can "learn" ancient Hebrew should you wish to eductate yourself.

To put forth an assertion without foundation is foolish. Where is your proof that anything was invented for or during the transliteration? Fools follow fools -- to the demise of both parties.

I'll not follow you HardlyTruth. The path you choose leads to destruction. Good luck, since that's all you have to work with.