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Message Subject Virgin Mary has just appeared in Medjugorje
Poster Handle ljsikes
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I was responding to the question of whether Joseph and Mary ever had sex. They certainly would not have while Mary was carrying Jesus. But they did afterwards according to Matthew 1:25.
 Quoting: ljsikes

You still offer no proof of your assertion, and I have replied to you twice.
 Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70175159


The proof is in verse 25.
It's right there in that verse - He knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son.

It's throughout the bible.

In Genesis, Adam knew his wife, and she conceived (gen 4:1)
Cain knew his wife, and she conceived (17)
Adam knew his wife again (25)


In Judges there is this: But the men would not hearken to him: so the man took his concubine, and brought her forth unto them; and they knew her, and abused her all the night until the morning: and when the day began to spring, they let her go.

When the bible speaks of knowing a woman (or a man, as in the case of Lot), it's speaking of sex.

And there is nothing at all wrong with Joseph and Mary having sex. They were married.
 Quoting: ljsikes

You are inferring that Joseph “knew” Mary after the birth of Jesus, and that is not stated whatsoever. The scripture passage you reference simply discounts any possibility of Joseph having been the biolological father of Jesus, that’s all.

You are right that there would have been nothing wrong with Joseph and Mary having intercourse, since they were husband and wife, but there was simply no reason for them to have such a relationship. According to Church tradition (largely discarded by Protestants) both Mary and Joseph were consecrated virgins, and married only to cooperate with God’s will to provide Jesus with an earthly Family. People automatically think in carnal terms, but the fact is that not everyone those urges, and some with high callings are given the gift (yes, gift) of celibacy.
 Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70175159


I'm not inferring. It comes down to how that particular passage should be interpreted. Is it in harmony with other such passages? What was the intent of the passage?
Just as you say there was no reason for them to have a relationship like that, I say there is an actual verse in the bible that indicates they did. Church tradition may state one thing, but where is that tradition backed up or validated in God's word?

And it's not just a Roman Catholic thing, so please don't think I'm attacking you or your church. Many churches have traditions which aren't supported by scripture.

I'll also add that whether or not Joseph and Mary actually had a relationship like that doesn't really matter. It doesn't change the fact that Mary was blessed. And it doesn't change anything regarding our Lord.
 
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