John 8:58 John 8:24 - "I am" means "I EXIST" from the Greek - KJV Bible Study

Lowered Himself.
Taking on the form of a man..

Yep, he took the form of a human being.

He actually took the form of pre-fall man.

And NO scriptures states that He 'took the form of a man'.

Jesus didn't 'descend' from Heaven.

Philippians 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

What a weird thing to argue about...

John 8:58 (Greek)

This distinction you try to draw between the verb “am” and “exist” makes no sense.

John 8:58 (Greek)

Eipen (said he) autois (to them) Iesous (Jesus): amen (truly) amen (truly) lego (I say) humin (to you), prin (before) Abraam (Abraham) genesthai (came to be) ego (I) eimi (am).

The Greek text gives the present tense form of the verb “am”. Grammatically, we would expect a past tense because the prior clause reads “before Abraham came to be”. Instead, Jesus subverts standard Greek grammar - and this is apparent in English translation - by using a present tense verb.

This distinction you try to draw between the verb “am” and “exist” makes no sense. There is no distinction in Greek. The verb einai - of which eimi is the first person present form - is the verb of existence, translated “to be, exist” in its infinitive form. When used in the present tense, it translates “I am, you are, etc”. In the past, “I was, you were, etc”.

In Greek, special emphasis tends to be placed on the first word of a sentence, just like Latin, and thus sentences in Greek that begin with the verb einai in some form tend to emphasize existence as the dominant idea rather than the thing which exists. For instance:

Iesous estin - JESUS is.

Estin Iesous - Jesus IS (ie Jesus lives!).

The sentence in John 8:58 places the verb at the end of the sentence, so no special emphasis is placed on it in this situation. Rather, the grammatical quirk is to place the verb in the present rather than past tense. In short, the Greek very clearly bears out the translation “I am”.

HOWEVER, what relation this has to Exodus 3:14 is quite another matter. For one, it is not clear how best to understand the grammar of Exodus and therefore how best to translate it. Indeed, ancient translation varied in both Latin and Greek. I do believe, however, that this next point is critical: the Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 reads “ego eimi ho on”, “I am who is”. As such, Jesus’ grammatically odd statement “ego eimi” directly parallels the Septuagint “ego eimi” that he regularly quotes. And in virtue of this, there is direct parallel in Greek between the Old and New Testaments.

Taken out of context.

OP is way too stupid to understand what you're saying in this post.

From Strong's Concordance...

[link to www.blueletterbible.org (secure)]


'Outline of Biblical Usage [?]

-to be, to exist, to happen, to be present'

.....

OP I’m curious: what’s your basis for believing what Matthew, Mark, John, and Luke said, but not Paul? What about James and Peter?

Okay, He descended from Heaven by taking the form of a man born of a virgin.

What's your "POINT" exactly?