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King James Bible Errors Cleared Up

 
Amish
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05/29/2009 01:12 AM
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King James Bible Errors Cleared Up
Why Are There Errors in the King James Version?
Written by: Richard Nickels

Claim:
"In about 80 places in the New Testament, the KJV adopts Latin readings not found in the Greek. Erasmus had a corrupt, incomplete text of Revelation to work from, and hence this book has many errors in the KJV."

Reply:
There is no evidence for this false claim.
___

KJV Translation Errors

Claim:
Genesis 1:2 should read "And the earth became without form . . . ." The word translated "was" is hayah, and denotes a condition different than a former condition

Reply:
Hebrew has accent marks. Hayah means "was" and "became". "Was" is proper context. God did not create the earth and then it became without form. God created the earth without form. It was without form.

Claim:
Genesis 10:9 should read " . . . Nimrod the mighty hunter in place of [in opposition to] the LORD." The word "before" is incorrect and gives the connotation that Nimrod was a good guy, which is false.

Reply:
This claim is opinion not translation of Hebrew text. "Before" is proper translation. Nimrod was before God as a prophetic charater who God set up to do His will (Daniel 2:21).

Claim:
Leviticus 16:8, 10, 26 in the KJV is "scapegoat" which today has the connotation of someone who is unjustly blamed for other's sins. The Hebrew is Azazel, which means "one removed or separated." The Azazel goat represents Satan, who is no scapegoat. He is guilty of his part in our sins.

Reply:
Azazel scapegoat is the sin offering sacrifice. Satan is no sin offering.

Claim:
Deuteronomy 24:1, "then let him" should be "and he." As the Savior explained in Matthew 19, Moses did not command divorcement. This statute is regulating the permission of divorce because of the hardness of their hearts.

Reply:
More opinion not based in translation of the Hebrew, rather conformity to newer corrupt translations to support false doctrine. "then let him" is correct as Moses did command the statute of divorce due to the hardness of the hearts of man. Man and woman were ment to become as one flesh before this (Matthew 19:5-8).

Claim:
2 Kings 2:23, should be "young men", not "little children."

Reply:
Same verbage is used in verse 24 correctly translated as children.

Claim:
Isaiah 65:17 should be "I am creating [am about to create] new heavens and new earth:"

Reply:
God will one day create anew...."v.17 For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind."

Claim:
Ezekiel 20:25 should read "Wherefore I permitted them, or gave them over to, [false] statutes that are not good, and judgments whereby they should not live." God's laws are good, perfect and right. This verse shows that since Israel rejected God's laws, He allowed them to hurt themselves by following false man made customs and laws.

Reply:
God gave the false statutes, as with sending them into captivity, pouring out His fury v.21. "v.25 Wherefore I gave them also statutes that were not good, and judgments whereby they should not live;"

Claim:
Daniel 8:14 is correct in the margin, which substitutes "evening morning" for "days." Too bad William Miller didn't realize this.

Reply:
William Miller did realize this. Miller counted the days correctly to 1844. The KJV translation is the correct translation with "days". The Hebrew word "ereb" means evenings, the start of the biblical day.

Claim:
Malachi 4:6 should read " . . . lest I come and smite the earth with utter destruction." "Curse" doesn't give the proper sense here. Same word used in Zechariah 14:11.

Reply:
Again, the Hebrew accent is not open for personal interpretation. The verse is not in the context of earth's destruction but relationships. . . "v.6 And he shall turn the heart of the fathers to the children, and the heart of the children to their fathers, lest I come and smite the earth with a curse."

_________

Claim:
Matthew 5:48 should be "Become ye therefore perfect" rather than "be ye therefore perfect." "Perfect" here means "spiritually mature." Sanctification is a process of overcoming with the aid of the Holy Spirit.

Reply:
Nowhere is the Greek "esomai" translated become. The KJV properly says "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect." Be ye as your Father is. The Father is not becoming.

Claim:
Matthew 24:22 needs an additional word to clarify the meaning. It should say "there should no flesh be saved alive."

Reply:
There is no cause to add words. The verse refers to saving the elect from spiritual deception not lives (v.24).

Claim:
Matthew 27:49 omits text which was in the original. Moffatt correctly adds it, while the RSV puts it in a footnote: "And another took a spear and pierced His side, and out came water and blood." The Savior's death came when a soldier pierced His side, Revelation 1:7.

Reply:
There are thousands of manuscripts comprising the Textus Receptus. The claimed text is not in Matthew 27:49. John 19:34 tells of the spear piercing the side of Jesus. Matthew and John are not suppose to be identical accounts, but told from different perspectives of the same events.

Claim:
Matthew 28:1, "In the end of the sabbath as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week . . ." should be translated literally, "Now late on Sabbath, as it was getting dusk toward the first day of the week . . . ." The Sabbath does not end at dawn but at dusk.

Reply:
The KJV correctly uses dawn as the start of the next day "towards".

Claim:
Luke 2:14 should say, "Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace among men of God's good pleasure or choosing." That is, there will be peace on earth among men who have God's good will in their hearts.

Reply:
The Greek does not support any change from the original as given..."v.14 Glory to God in the highest, and on earth peace, good will toward men."

Claim:
Luke 14:26 has the unfortunate translation of the Greek word miseo, Strong's #3404, as "hate", when it should be rendered "love less by comparison." We are not to hate our parents and family!

Reply:
We are to honour our parents as found in the sixth commandment but hate evil that causes separation from god (Luke 12:49-53).

Claim:
John 1:31, 33 should say "baptize" or "baptizing IN water" not with water. Pouring or sprinkling with water is not the scriptural method of baptism, but only thorough immersion in water.

Reply:
This is a repeat of John 3:5 "Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."

Claim:
John 1:17 is another instance of a poor preposition. "By" should be "through": "For the law was given by [through] Moses . . . ." Moses did not proclaim his law, but God's Law.

Reply:
The law was given by Moses (2 Chronicles 33:8) and is the proper translation of the text.

Claim:
John 13:2 should be "And during supper" (RSV) rather than "And supper being ended" (KJV).

Reply:
Supper had ended; "v.4 He riseth from supper".

Claim:
Acts 12:4 has the inaccurate word "Easter" which should be rendered "Passover." The Greek word is pascha which is translated correctly as Passover in Matthew 26:2.

Reply:
Passover is a one day event that was already over and into the Feast of unleavened bread (v.3). Pagan days and gods are found in scripture (ie.Queen of Heaven). The Romans were pagan and observed Easter. Peter was to be held until after their pagan festival.

Acts 12:3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) 4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

The translators correctly interpreted the intent of Luke in Acts.

Claim:
1 Corinthians 1:18 should be: "For the preaching of the cross is to them that are perishing foolishness; but unto us which are being saved it is the power of God", rather than "perish" and "are saved." Likewise, 2 Thessalonians 2:10 should be "are perishing" rather than "perish."

Reply:
"v.18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God." They are not "perishing", they "perish" in sin. Neither "being saved", but "are saved" that have wise understanding (Daniel 12:10).

2 Thessalonians 10 And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved.

They are not "perishing" yet. They have chosen to "perish" in sin.

Claim:
1 Corinthians 15:29 should be: "Else what shall they do which are baptized for the hope of the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the hope of the dead?"

Reply:
We are not to add words "hope" that adds to the meaning of the verse. The verse is about baptism not being a vain thing, not the hope of the dead.

Claim:
2 Corinthians 6:2 should be "a day of salvation", instead of "the day of salvation." This is a quote from Isaiah 49:8, which is correct. The day of salvation is not the same for each individual. The firstfruits have their day of salvation during this life. The rest in the second resurrection.

Reply:
"The day of salvation" is the second coming day (v.17,18). The second resurrection is for the wicked (Revelation 20:5-9). The firstfruits are all those saved in Christ (Revelation 14:4).

Claim:
1 Timothy 4:8 should say, "For bodily exercise profiteth for a little time: but godliness in profitable unto all things . . . ."

Reply:
This verse has no "time" context but exersise benefits on the body being of little use without being saved unto immortality.
"v.8 For bodily exercise profiteth little: but godliness is profitable unto all things, having promise of the life that now is, and of that which is to come."

Claim:
1 Timothy 6:10 should be, "For the love of money is a [not the] root of all evil . . . ."

Reply:
"a" cannot be root to "all evil" only part of the evil while "the root" gets "all evil". The KJV is correct and in harmony with the rest of the text.

Claim:
Hebrews 4:8 should be "Joshua" rather than "Jesus", although these two words are Hebrew and Greek equivalents.

Reply:
v.8 is correctly "Jesus". v.8-10 "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God. For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his."

Claim:
Hebrews 4:9 should read, "There remaineth therefore a keeping of a sabbath to the people of God."

Reply:
"ceased from his own works" indicates this is the day of rest, the Sabbath (v.4). v.9 is correct from the Greek as found in the KJV.

Claim:
Hebrews 9:28 is out of proper order in the King James. It should be: "So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them without sin that look for him shall he appear the second time unto salvation."

Reply:
The connotation is properly place in the KJV on the sins that Christ offered to bear. The first appearance (advent) of Christ He offered to bear the sins of man, paying the price as the final sacrifice on the cross, to all those who accept. The second coming is not to bear the sins again but to deliver unto salvation.
"v.27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment: 28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation."

Claim:
1 John 5:7-8 contains additional text which was added to the original. "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one." The italicized text was added to the original manuscripts. Most modern translations agree that this was an uninspired addition to the Latin Vulgate to support the unscriptural trinity doctrine.

Reply:
"additional text which was added to the original" Greek was spoken and written in Byzantine where the thousands of copies of the text were preserved, unlike the Latin where only a few priest had access corrupting the entire stream of text. There is no proof of the claim.

Claim:
Revelation 14:4 should be "a firstfruits", because the 144,000 are not all the firstfruits.

Reply:
"The" firstfruits 144,000 (v.1) is a symbolic number of all those who are saved in Christ, undefiled by the false religion (woman), and having the seal of God in their forehead (v.1).

Claim:
Revelation 20:4-5 in the KJV is a little confusing until you realize that the sentence "This is the first resurrection." in verse five refers back to "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years" in verse four.

Reply:
"The rest of the dead" had no part in the first resurrection.

Claim:
Revelation 20:10, "And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are [correction: should be 'were cast' because the beast and false prophet were mortal human beings who were burned up in the lake of fire 1,000 years previous to this time, Revelation 19:20], and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever." The point is that Satan will be cast into the same lake of fire into which the beast and false prophet were cast a thousand years previously.

Reply:
The translation is correct "was". The "beast" is not a mortal man but a political kingdom (Daniel 7:23).

Claim:
Revelation 22:2 should be "health" rather than "healing."

Reply:
"yerapeia" is the Greek word for "therapy" or "healing". In the context of spiritual and physical restoration of the nations "healing" is correct as found.

Claim:
Often, the added italicized words do help make the meaning clearer. At other times, the translators through their doctrinal misunderstandings added errors instead.

Reply:
The accent marks on Hebrew words give indication as to what words are needed for proper English translation (ie. was, are, were). Adding these words is part of the process of translation from Hebrew and Greek.

Claim:
In Psalms 81:4, "was" is totally uncalled for and not in the original Hebrew. New Moons are still a statute of God.

Reply:
The KJV properly translates the intent of the original Hebrew as "was". The new moons were part of what was nailed to the cross in Christ (Colossians 2:14-17). The ordinances were for Israel as a shadow of the coming savior.

Claim:
John 8:28 where Jesus said (KJV), "I am he." The "he" is in italics and was not actually spoken by Jesus, completely obscuring the fact the Jesus was claiming to be the great "I AM" of the Old Testament, John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14.

Reply:
"I am he" refers to the "Son of man".
"v.28 Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things."

Claim:
In Luke 3:23-38, the italicized words "the son" are not in the original Greek. Actually, Luke gives the fleshly descent of the Savior through Mary, while Matthew gives the legal descent through Joseph.

Reply:
Luke and Mattew are both correct and tell of different situations on the birth and relationship of Jesus with Joseph and Mary. Jesus was legally the son of Joseph while not being of Joseph but the Father in Heaven impregnated Mary (Luke 1:26-35).
"v.23 And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph,"

Claim:
Matthew 24:24 should not have the italicized words "it were". It IS possible for the elect to be deceived. We need to be on guard!

Reply:
"it were" correctly places the deception with the false Christs. Removing "it were" has no relevance on deceiving the elect; "that if possible deceive very elect.", updated to; "insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect."
"v.24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect."

Claim:
Romans 1:7 incorrectly has the italicized words "to be." The fact is, Christians are now saints.

Reply:
The verse addresses the Christians of Rome.
"v.7 To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ."

Claim:
1 Corinthians 7:19 needs some italicized words to make the meaning clear. It should say: "Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but [the important thing is] the keeping of the commandments of God."

Reply:
The full expression is correctly translated from the Greek; "v.19 Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God."

Claim:
Colossians 2:16-17 can be properly understood only if the KJV italicized word "is" in verse 17 is left out, as it should be. The message of these verses is: don't let men judge you as doing wrong when you observe the holy days, new moons and sabbaths; let the body of Christ (the Church) do the judging.

Reply:
v.14-17 details what was nailed to the cross, that no man shall judge for failing to observe the ordinances any longer after Christ and the cross. There is no longer salvation found in the works of the ordinances (v.17) but the [body of Christianity], correctly translated, "is of Christ."

Claim:
1 Timothy 3:11 has "their" in italics, which is not implied in the original.

Reply:
"their" correctly refers to the deacons (v.8).

Claim:
2 Peter 2:5 should not have "person, a." Noah was the eighth preacher of righteousness.

Reply:
Noah was the eigth person on the Ark (Genesis 6:10,18). "v.5 And spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person, a preacher of righteousness, bringing in the flood upon the world of the ungodly;"

Claim:
1 John 2:23 has "[but] he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also" in italics. This is an addition based upon the Latin text and not in the original Greek.

Reply:
The text is not in the Geneva Bible but is found in the Greek and English Textus Receptus (TR). There are thousands of manuscripts comosing the TR
"v.23 Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: (but) he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also."

Claim:
Punctuation Problems

Luke 23:43 has been erroneously used by some to claim that Jesus went straight to heaven at His death. The original Greek did not have punctuation marks as we do today. The KJV states, "And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." The comma should not be after "thee", but "day." The believing malefactor would be with Christ in the paradise of the redeemed when he was resurrected far into the future.

Reply:
This comma is incorrectly placed as claimed. It is the only one in the entire Bible. The punctuation was added with translation and does not affect the manuscripts themselves.

Claim:
Punctuation Problems

Mark 16:9 does not say that Jesus was resurrected Sunday morning. There is a missing implied comma between "risen" and "early" and there should be no comma after week as the KJV has it: "Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene . . . ." Thus, it should say, "Now when Jesus was risen, early the first day of the week he appeared first to Mary Magdalene. . ."

Reply:
This comma is correctly placed. Jesus was in the grave three days (Luke 24:1).
___

This was a failed attempt to rewrite the word of God by Richard Nickels, who was a member of the Church of God denomination.
[link to www.thejournal.org]
Halcyon Dayz, FCD

User ID: 434868
Netherlands
05/29/2009 11:03 PM
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Re: King James Bible Errors Cleared Up
Why Are There Errors in the King James Version?
 Quoting: Amish

Because human beings are fallible.

Modern scholarly translations are far more accurate.
book
Reaching for the sky makes you taller.

Hi! My name is Halcyon Dayz and I'm addicted to morans.
Anonymous Coward
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United States
05/29/2009 11:20 PM
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Re: King James Bible Errors Cleared Up
Gee, that changes everything ... pick
Anonymous Coward
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Panama
05/30/2009 02:30 AM
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Re: King James Bible Errors Cleared Up
Thank you for posting this, Amish.