Why aren't christians doing greater works than Christ? | |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 08:32 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | SO why is it even in the KJV, pagan? Jesus isn't even a Hebrew name, or the Hebrew form of the name rather. 21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. 22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? 23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity. Matthew 7:21-23 |
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Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 08:37 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: FairportNY You should read some of my thread and check out the links in my signature. [link to www.godlikeproductions.com] Do your research. It's of utmost importance. Thread: Trinitarians, you are violating the first commandment! Thread: A friendly warning (for trinitarians): only the one that does the will of the Father will enter the kingdom I read Isaiah 7 again, I do not see how there are two babies being born of a virgin in it. verse 14 refers to a 'son', as in singular. Yes, and that son (not God) was to born during the kingship of Ahaz. As a sign that God was with them. In purpose not incarnated presence. Matthew 1:23 then applies the same prophecy (sign) to Jesus, that's what makes it a dual prophecy. Because God was also with Jesus and his disciples. How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, and how He went about doing good and healing all who were under the tyranny of the Devil, because God was with Him. Acts 10:38 Why during his kingship? God was speaking to the House of David, and said there SHALL be given a sign. A virgin SHALL conceive, etc. All we know is it is in the future. Nowhere did it indicate it would happen during Ahaz' reign. |
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Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 08:44 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | In the kjv... lol thats a good one. Provide a verse. Ill wait. Quoting: Anonymous Coward 50114287 In case you haven't heard fake Jew , God isnt a respective of persons. He doesnt care if Jesus is in your stupid language lol Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 08:45 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | In the kjv... lol thats a good one. Provide a verse. Ill wait. Quoting: Anonymous Coward 50114287 In case you haven't heard fake Jew , God isnt a respective of persons. He doesnt care if Jesus is in your stupid language lol Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Are you enjoying the blaphemy, FairportNY? That's the fruit of your doctrines. Your dotrine in themselvs being the worst kind of blasphemy. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 08:48 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | In the kjv... lol thats a good one. Provide a verse. Ill wait. Quoting: Anonymous Coward 50114287 In case you haven't heard fake Jew , God isnt a respective of persons. He doesnt care if Jesus is in your stupid language lol Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Okay, Gen 22:14 14 And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovahjireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen. You are questioning why the translator put LORD, and not Jehovah? |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 08:49 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | In the kjv... lol thats a good one. Provide a verse. Ill wait. Quoting: Anonymous Coward 50114287 In case you haven't heard fake Jew , God isnt a respective of persons. He doesnt care if Jesus is in your stupid language lol Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Are you enjoying the blaphemy, FairportNY? That's the fruit of your doctrines. Your dotrine in themselvs being the worst kind of blasphemy. I am not blaspheming God. You are sitting there denying Jesus was born of a virgin, denying Jesus is God. You have this backwards. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 08:49 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70256663 I read Isaiah 7 again, I do not see how there are two babies being born of a virgin in it. verse 14 refers to a 'son', as in singular. Yes, and that son (not God) was to born during the kingship of Ahaz. As a sign that God was with them. In purpose not incarnated presence. Matthew 1:23 then applies the same prophecy (sign) to Jesus, that's what makes it a dual prophecy. Because God was also with Jesus and his disciples. How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, and how He went about doing good and healing all who were under the tyranny of the Devil, because God was with Him. Acts 10:38 Why during his kingship? God was speaking to the House of David, and said there SHALL be given a sign. A virgin SHALL conceive, etc. All we know is it is in the future. Nowhere did it indicate it would happen during Ahaz' reign. Respond to this |
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Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 08:58 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70256663 I read Isaiah 7 again, I do not see how there are two babies being born of a virgin in it. verse 14 refers to a 'son', as in singular. Yes, and that son (not God) was to born during the kingship of Ahaz. As a sign that God was with them. In purpose not incarnated presence. Matthew 1:23 then applies the same prophecy (sign) to Jesus, that's what makes it a dual prophecy. Because God was also with Jesus and his disciples. How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, and how He went about doing good and healing all who were under the tyranny of the Devil, because God was with Him. Acts 10:38 Why during his kingship? God was speaking to the House of David, and said there SHALL be given a sign. A virgin SHALL conceive, etc. All we know is it is in the future. Nowhere did it indicate it would happen during Ahaz' reign. The sign was to be personally given to king Ahaz, who was facing attack from two kings. He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken Isaiah 7:16 |
Petitroche User ID: 66954576 United States 09/05/2015 09:00 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | You search the scriptures for in them you think you have life but you won't come to Me. Sounds familiar... Quoting: natalie You started out by asking questions. Now you're portraying yourself as someone that knows. I hope that by the end of this thread, You'll have answered your original question, because I can't wait to hear your answer. I don't have the time or the crayons to explain this to you. Slake Blake |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 50114287 United States 09/05/2015 09:03 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | You search the scriptures for in them you think you have life but you won't come to Me. Sounds familiar... Quoting: natalie You started out by asking questions. Now you're portraying yourself as someone that knows. I hope that by the end of this thread, You'll have answered your original question, because I can't wait to hear your answer. This. Knew this was a deciever. Fake Jew/ synogogue of Satan. Dont waste your time on this thread. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 09:08 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: FairportNY Yes, and that son (not God) was to born during the kingship of Ahaz. As a sign that God was with them. In purpose not incarnated presence. Matthew 1:23 then applies the same prophecy (sign) to Jesus, that's what makes it a dual prophecy. Because God was also with Jesus and his disciples. How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, and how He went about doing good and healing all who were under the tyranny of the Devil, because God was with Him. Acts 10:38 Why during his kingship? God was speaking to the House of David, and said there SHALL be given a sign. A virgin SHALL conceive, etc. All we know is it is in the future. Nowhere did it indicate it would happen during Ahaz' reign. The sign was to be personally given to king Ahaz, who was facing attack from two kings. He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken Isaiah 7:16 You bring up an interesting point, here see what Wesley wrote: Wesley's Notes for Isaiah 7:16 7:16 Yea - Not only this land shall be preserved until the virgin's son shall be born, but thine enemies land shall be sorely scourged, and these two kings destroyed within a very little time. This child - Shear - Jashub, whom in all probability the prophet pointed at, and who was brought hither by God's special command, ver.#3|. for this very use. The land - The lands of Syria and Israel. Forsaken - So far shall Pekah and Rezin be from conquering thy land, that they shall lose their own lands, and their lives too; which they did within two years after this time, being both slain by the king of Assyria. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 70230264 United States 09/05/2015 09:08 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | SO why is it even in the KJV, pagan? Jesus isn't even a Hebrew name, or the Hebrew form of the name rather. 21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. 22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? 23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity. Matthew 7:21-23 Jesus wasn't the name of Jesus either... Yahweh isn't in the KJV and neither is Jehovah. |
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Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 09:10 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | In the kjv... lol thats a good one. Provide a verse. Ill wait. Quoting: Anonymous Coward 50114287 In case you haven't heard fake Jew , God isnt a respective of persons. He doesnt care if Jesus is in your stupid language lol Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Are you enjoying the blaphemy, FairportNY? That's the fruit of your doctrines. Your dotrine in themselvs being the worst kind of blasphemy. I am not blaspheming God. You are sitting there denying Jesus was born of a virgin, denying Jesus is God. You have this backwards. Jesus claimed he was the Messiah. I belive him. Jesus said his God was the Father, and his God was my God, YHWH, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. God sais that He alone is the Most High God. I believe Him. I have the exact same God as Jesus, you don't. All as communicated in the Bible. Your God and Jesus is an dual natured, incarnated God-man, constituting one member of a three-unity of consubstantial Gods. This as defined in Catechism of the Catholic Church, the Nicene Creed, the Athanasian Creed, and decided through the imperial Edict of Thessalonica, the First Council of Nicaea (325), the First Council of Constantinople (381), Council of Ephesus (431), the Council of Chalcedon (451) , the Second Council of Constantinople (553) and Third Council of Constantinople )680-681). |
Petitroche User ID: 66954576 United States 09/05/2015 09:10 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | You search the scriptures for in them you think you have life but you won't come to Me. Sounds familiar... Quoting: natalie You started out by asking questions. Now you're portraying yourself as someone that knows. I hope that by the end of this thread, You'll have answered your original question, because I can't wait to hear your answer. Thanks for nothing, TROLL Natalie. You could have just come out in your thread title and said that you hate religious people instead of asking questions that you didn't plan to answer. I don't have the time or the crayons to explain this to you. Slake Blake |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 09:11 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | SO why is it even in the KJV, pagan? Jesus isn't even a Hebrew name, or the Hebrew form of the name rather. 21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven. 22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? 23 And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity. Matthew 7:21-23 Jesus wasn't the name of Jesus either... Yahweh isn't in the KJV and neither is Jehovah. There are seven instances of 'Jehovah' in the KJV, my friend. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 09:16 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70256663 Why during his kingship? God was speaking to the House of David, and said there SHALL be given a sign. A virgin SHALL conceive, etc. All we know is it is in the future. Nowhere did it indicate it would happen during Ahaz' reign. The sign was to be personally given to king Ahaz, who was facing attack from two kings. He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken Isaiah 7:16 You bring up an interesting point, here see what Wesley wrote: Wesley's Notes for Isaiah 7:16 7:16 Yea - Not only this land shall be preserved until the virgin's son shall be born, but thine enemies land shall be sorely scourged, and these two kings destroyed within a very little time. This child - Shear - Jashub, whom in all probability the prophet pointed at, and who was brought hither by God's special command, ver.#3|. for this very use. The land - The lands of Syria and Israel. Forsaken - So far shall Pekah and Rezin be from conquering thy land, that they shall lose their own lands, and their lives too; which they did within two years after this time, being both slain by the king of Assyria. It's not even an interesting point. It says what it says when you read it in context instead of listening to false teachers. What makes it dual is the way Matthew applies it, nothing that is said in Isaiah. The first child it applies to wasn't God, and neither is Jesus. It's a sign. A sign trinitarians ignore. Notice also the hypocrisy of trinitarian apologists when using this verse as an alleged proof verse for their false teaching. First Immanuel sign = not God. Second Immanuel sig = totally God. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 09:18 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70256663 Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Are you enjoying the blaphemy, FairportNY? That's the fruit of your doctrines. Your dotrine in themselvs being the worst kind of blasphemy. I am not blaspheming God. You are sitting there denying Jesus was born of a virgin, denying Jesus is God. You have this backwards. Jesus claimed he was the Messiah. I belive him. Jesus said his God was the Father, and his God was my God, YHWH, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. God sais that He alone is the Most High God. I believe Him. I have the exact same God as Jesus, you don't. All as communicated in the Bible. Your God and Jesus is an dual natured, incarnated God-man, constituting one member of a three-unity of consubstantial Gods. This as defined in Catechism of the Catholic Church, the Nicene Creed, the Athanasian Creed, and decided through the imperial Edict of Thessalonica, the First Council of Nicaea (325), the First Council of Constantinople (381), Council of Ephesus (431), the Council of Chalcedon (451) , the Second Council of Constantinople (553) and Third Council of Constantinople )680-681). Fair enough, we agree on that. And that should be enough. However, just because Jesus referred to God as 'my God', that does not imply inferiority. As the 'Son of Man', and on earth as born of a woman, this makes sense. Why did God say, let US make man in OUR image? Jesus was there in the beginning, and in Him was everything made, just like John 1:3 states. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 09:22 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | In the kjv... lol thats a good one. Provide a verse. Ill wait. Quoting: Anonymous Coward 50114287 In case you haven't heard fake Jew , God isnt a respective of persons. He doesnt care if Jesus is in your stupid language lol Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Okay, Gen 22:14 14 And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovahjireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen. You are questioning why the translator put LORD, and not Jehovah? Questioning it, sure, I'm asserting it more than anything. God said His purpose was to spread His name. Instead they replaced it. In violation of His commandment (Deuteronomy 4:2). It's also a lot easier to peddle the trinity lie when you replace the name with a title. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 09:22 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: FairportNY The sign was to be personally given to king Ahaz, who was facing attack from two kings. He knows enough to refuse evil and choose good. For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken Isaiah 7:16 You bring up an interesting point, here see what Wesley wrote: Wesley's Notes for Isaiah 7:16 7:16 Yea - Not only this land shall be preserved until the virgin's son shall be born, but thine enemies land shall be sorely scourged, and these two kings destroyed within a very little time. This child - Shear - Jashub, whom in all probability the prophet pointed at, and who was brought hither by God's special command, ver.#3|. for this very use. The land - The lands of Syria and Israel. Forsaken - So far shall Pekah and Rezin be from conquering thy land, that they shall lose their own lands, and their lives too; which they did within two years after this time, being both slain by the king of Assyria. It's not even an interesting point. It says what it says when you read it in context instead of listening to false teachers. What makes it dual is the way Matthew applies it, nothing that is said in Isaiah. The first child it applies to wasn't God, and neither is Jesus. It's a sign. A sign trinitarians ignore. Notice also the hypocrisy of trinitarian apologists when using this verse as an alleged proof verse for their false teaching. First Immanuel sign = not God. Second Immanuel sig = totally God. See you claim you believe in Jesus as the Messiah, then say things like this. You contradict yourself. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 69725311 United States 09/05/2015 09:25 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | In the kjv... lol thats a good one. Provide a verse. Ill wait. Quoting: Anonymous Coward 50114287 In case you haven't heard fake Jew , God isnt a respective of persons. He doesnt care if Jesus is in your stupid language lol Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Okay, Gen 22:14 14 And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovahjireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen. You are questioning why the translator put LORD, and not Jehovah? Questioning it, sure, I'm asserting it more than anything. God said His purpose was to spread His name. Instead they replaced it. In violation of His commandment (Deuteronomy 4:2). It's also a lot easier to peddle the trinity lie when you replace the name with a title. Not replaced, transliterated. Into a different language. Those seven instances of 'Jehovah' that the KJV contains, all are instances that specifically refer to the personal name of God. Those other instances where the verse simply states 'LORD' does not have that reference to the personal name. You seem to keep glossing over this important concept. |
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Anonymous Coward User ID: 50114287 United States 09/05/2015 09:32 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70256663 Seven times, pagan, with vowels added. Genesis 22:14, Exodus 6:3, Judges 6:24, Psalms 83:18, Isaiah 12:2, Isaiah 26:4. And every single time LORD appears in all capital it's also a rendition of the tetragrammaton, you can check any Bible concordance. It wasn't written in English, pagan, it was translated to English. And not even the KJV translators denying the name, they merely omitted it and replaced it. Okay, Gen 22:14 14 And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovahjireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen. You are questioning why the translator put LORD, and not Jehovah? Questioning it, sure, I'm asserting it more than anything. God said His purpose was to spread His name. Instead they replaced it. In violation of His commandment (Deuteronomy 4:2). It's also a lot easier to peddle the trinity lie when you replace the name with a title. Jehovah is a title just lij e Emmanuel. 5 minutes of study confirm this. Acts4:10-12. Not replaced, transliterated. Into a different language. Those seven instances of 'Jehovah' that the KJV contains, all are instances that specifically refer to the personal name of God. Those other instances where the verse simply states 'LORD' does not have that reference to the personal name. You seem to keep glossing over this important concept. |
Anonymous Coward User ID: 70256663 Sweden 09/05/2015 09:34 PM Report Abusive Post Report Copyright Violation | ... Quoting: Anonymous Coward 70256663 Are you enjoying the blaphemy, FairportNY? That's the fruit of your doctrines. Your dotrine in themselvs being the worst kind of blasphemy. I am not blaspheming God. You are sitting there denying Jesus was born of a virgin, denying Jesus is God. You have this backwards. Jesus claimed he was the Messiah. I belive him. Jesus said his God was the Father, and his God was my God, YHWH, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. God sais that He alone is the Most High God. I believe Him. I have the exact same God as Jesus, you don't. All as communicated in the Bible. Your God and Jesus is an dual natured, incarnated God-man, constituting one member of a three-unity of consubstantial Gods. This as defined in Catechism of the Catholic Church, the Nicene Creed, the Athanasian Creed, and decided through the imperial Edict of Thessalonica, the First Council of Nicaea (325), the First Council of Constantinople (381), Council of Ephesus (431), the Council of Chalcedon (451) , the Second Council of Constantinople (553) and Third Council of Constantinople )680-681). Fair enough, we agree on that. And that should be enough. However, just because Jesus referred to God as 'my God', that does not imply inferiority. As the 'Son of Man', and on earth as born of a woman, this makes sense. Why did God say, let US make man in OUR image? Jesus was there in the beginning, and in Him was everything made, just like John 1:3 states. Yes, it implies inferiority. Jesus was the servant of God. And that God is identified as the YHWH, the Father alone. We've already been through John, you should watch those links before we debate that any further. Genesis 1:26 has always been understood as God adressng the heavenly court, pluralis majestatis or pluralis excellentiae. This has always been the understanding even by trinitarian Christian commentators. In modern times however, many desperate trinitarians adopted that verse as a "proof" verse because they know they have no scriptural basis for their doctrines. [link to www.angelfire.com] The problem once again is context, something trinitarian scholars being hypocrites and liar in nature, have no problem omitting. THe actual act of creation is narrtaed in the verse that follows, Genesis 1:27. So why don't trinitarian decievers quote this verse even if it's contexually important? Because it switches to singular person pronoun: So God created man in HIS own image, in the image of God created HE him; male and female created HE them. Genesis 1:27 |